The First "Philosophers?"
In textbooks and other studies regarding the history of philosophy, we begin, in the 6th century BCE, with a group of thinkers that are loosely linked together under the name of "pre-Socratics." Naturally, as the name implies, this means that they all lived and did their philosophizing before the life and times of Socrates, who lived in Athens from 470/469 to 399 BCE. And that is is significant, as Socrates took Western philosophy off on a completely novel direction. But the designation implies much more than this. The "pre-Socratics" are distinguished primarily by their early investigation of the nature of physical reality itself. Socrates, on the other hand, would lead it more into the investigation of the human sphere, particularly in the realms of knowledge and ethics.But the pre-Socratics are important, we are told, because they were the first thinkers to attempt to understand and explain the world in purely "natural" terms, rather than relying upon "mythological" explanations. In essence, the fact that they asked questions or searched for answers without any reference to "the gods" is supposed to be a significant jump in the intellectual history of humankind. Indeed, many texts blatantly assert that this was the beginning of a new era, in which both the concepts and traditions of rational philosophy and natural science were born.
And to some degree, I suppose this is true. But I’m afraid that this both oversimplifies and overstates the case. In the first place, this generalization has to be come to be seen as unsatisfactory, since such a statement neglects the entire history of the philosophical thought of India and the Far East. The earliest Upanishads, for example, which contain vast speculations on the nature and order of Being at the highest levels, could predate the Ionian Greek philosophers of Miletus by two or more centuries, at least. So, to be more exact, we are compelled to regard the pre-Socratics as the inaugurators of the tradition of the project known as "Western philosophy" and they should be described and designated as such.
To any objections that "Eastern philosophy" is inextricably tied up with "Eastern religion," I would first point out that there are many different ways of interpreting these Eastern thought traditions. Not only can, in many places, purely "philosophical" ideas be conceptually separated from some of their origins in religious traditions, but when we are speaking of the pre-modern, pre-scientific world in general, terms such as "philosophy" and "religion" are inherently vague and often distorting. We can see some of the same problems of strict distinctions just as clearly in the West.
There is a tendency to see the pre-Socratic philosophers, beginning with Thales, as taking the first tentative steps towards both science and philosophy in the West. It is said that Thales predicted a solar eclipse in 585 BCE, and if this is true, then he was using advanced powers both of observation and deduction. But did not the Babylonian astrologers not make such bold predictions as well? They certainly relied heavily on observation and mathematical formulas, and the very fact that they were doing so indicates that they were certainly highly aware of measurable, uniform patterns in the actions of nature. Yet, they did not, ostensibly, make the next step, which was to treat the rhythms of nature in a purely rational, secular sense of cause-and-effect, cut off from any divine influence of the gods. On the contrary, the Babylonians probably saw such uniformity in nature as a validation of the presence of such deities embedded in the cosmos themselves. Where phenomena behaved rationally, there must be reason - something very akin to human reason, but unimaginably magnified, to stretch to the entirety of nature as a governing effect.
As we shall see, the pre-Socratics themselves did not make this radical separation and distinction between the "natural" and "supernatural" worlds. Did not Thales himself declare that "everything is full of gods?" What did he mean by that? I suppose that we shall never know for certain. But even in the most rationalistic cosmogonies of the ancient Greeks, there was never the kind of clear and distinct chasm between "rationality" and "mythology" that we tend to think of today. Indeed, it was only in the most advanced stages of the Enlightenment, probably not before the 18th century, that thinkers began to systematically remove "mytho-poetic" elements from their conceptual ruminations. And even today, we must question whether they, in their enthusiasm for the new, did not go too far.
For the great problem exists still today, though certainly in modified form, that existed for Thales and the other early truth-seekers. We observe a regularity of patterns in nature, the behavior of phenomena according to certain predictable cycles of action which we label "laws." But what, precisely, is it, that gives legitimacy or even cogency to these so-called "laws?" We believe in cause-and-effect, of course, despite the warnings of David Hume that it could not be either observed or rationally demonstrated. Undoubtedly the Babylonians believed in it as well. As far back as man’s mind was capable of making the connection, what went up always came back down. (Even animals can be observed to believe in sequence, even if not causality.) The larger question: how do we explain such things? - has never really been answered.
Scientists today must presume a universal system of causality with a regularity that is entirely predictable in order to continue their labors. But have we not lived almost an entire century with the perplexing irregularities of sub-atomic particles to recognize that there must be some larger principle at hand which requires further explaining? And even if we were not confronted with the bogeyman of quantum mechanics, could we still maintain to our utter satisfaction why indeed things must behave as they do behave? Is this not a question that transcends science itself and treks off into that abstract realm that we still quietly (and ashamedly) call philosophy?
Finally, in the last analysis, is this not where we attempt to explain - at least in theoretical, hypothetical, but very frequently (if not always) in metaphorical or even mythological language? We pretend we understand, but the real source of a power like gravity utterly eludes us. We cannot observe cause-and-effect, and we have absolutely no idea whatsoever why it should be there. We should certainly stop pretending that we do!
This "world" we inhabit, whatever its limits, its origins (if it has any) and its ultimate inner workings remains what it was before the Enlightenment, and certainly before the pre-Socratics. It remains, ultimately, a mystery.
Now, that is not to say that we have not advanced quite a way since the time of pre-pre-Socratic Greece. The beginning impulse to look at the world around us in quite abstract terms, to come to think of it primarily in terms of its regular mechanical operations - particularly on a very large scale - is absolutely an enormous achievement. And I will not deny Thales and his progenitors their rightful claims to be - to an enormous degree - the chief initiators of the great Western philosophical/scientific project. These designations certainly have merit.
But we must also be cautious lest we overstate the facts. And the fact remains that there was no radical "Copernican revolution" in 6th century Ionia (or anywhere else) that suddenly set mens’ minds free to see "reality" as it truly is, without the aid of miracles - that is, ideas and effects that can really not be exhaustively explained.
What I would prefer to say is that these primitive scientists-slash-philosophers achieved was the beginning of a long change in human perspective in the tendency of regarding certain natural phenomena. And that is quite a long way from saying that they "secularized" nature. Indeed, everything still did, and would continue to, even up until the present day "be filled with gods."
Yes, we can look back upon these thinkers and separate their "science" from their "philosophy," and we can even presume (though I think we do it much too freely and frequently) to separate both from their "religion." (Though, I think that we’ll see, especially when we come to dealing with Plato, that is not so very easy a thing to do.) For us, the inheritors of the modern "scientific revolution", the term "science" implies a certain method of asking and receiving tentative answers about certain types of questions. And those questions are primarily about the mathematically measurable (quantifiable) predictions based upon observations of that queerly predictable realm of causes which Aristotle named "efficient," - at least they seem predictable in the limited macrocosmic realm in which we find them activating. And in the last analysis, that’s all we can say about them. Anyone who makes any grand and ultimate statements on the very fundamental nature of reality based upon that slim (though impressive) gateway of experience is certainly going so far as to look as a pure fool to someone who has just a half-step through the next portal of discovery.
But even if we can identify the pre-Socratics’ science and separate it from their philosophy, are we sure we can truthfully say we fully understand, and what’s more, give answer to, their "philosophy" as we see it in its purest sense?
I, for one, seriously doubt it. For even if we cannot remain in the pre-Socratic realm and must push on forward to larger, more complex and critical systems of thought, that does not mean we have resolved or settled their ultimate enigmas.
We must be ever wary and careful of arrogance and overconfidence. And I say this as regards to what we might consider the advance of the pre-Socratics over the so-called "mythological world", and just as much, perhaps more, to our supposed progress beyond the pre-Socratics themselves. Their final answers may not satisfy us, but they did not satisfy their own fellows even for a single generation. Their enigmas, on the other hand, are still quite with us today.
What then, do we say about the pre-Socratics? How should they be characterized?
Perhaps we should say that there began with Thales, a general intellectual movement that took in hand the project of trying to explain the larger questions about reality through the use of both reason and observation as an emphasis, rather than make any grand pronouncements about a "radical" shift in fundamental perspective. True, in some places, and with certain individuals, there came about a certain degree of, in not "demythologization" then at least a retreat from the "traditional" or "orthodox" mythologies of the period, but that was quite exceptional - it was not the norm. No, I would prefer to talk about a tendency in the development of a new tradition of thought that places the new emphasis in its proper cultural and intellectual perspective. Such thinking had both significance in itself, particularly in the questions that it brought up and the methods of approach that certain thinkers took, as well as all types of influences on the future of European (and other) thought-traditions.
Perhaps I’m making much too big of an issue out of this. There is no real question here that Thales and company helped to launch or initiate a very significant and uniquely new tradition that would ultimately bear rich fruit with the advanced speculative systems of Plato and Aristotle. And there is no question that their methods and conceptual goals were quite different from Homer’s and Hesiod’s. I suppose that I just object to the maintenance of the notion that there was such a dramatic cleavage from one type of cultural thought-tradition to another, one that quite rightly and cleanly left the world of "mythology" behind to take on a new, independent life. For we must not forget that philosophy flourished in the high Middle Ages, side-by-side with religious (or "mythological" thought) quite nicely for several hundred harmonious years.
I suppose what I really want to stress here in my introduction to the pre-Socratics is to give what I consider a more reasonable and balanced approach that is often found in introductory texts. It is probably because I detect a certain assumption of superiority with which I take exception when I read such books. I think it shows a lack of respect for the "mythological" approach to life - one that I find not only positive, but absolutely necessary for a full appreciation of the position and story of humanity.
The first Greek philosophers were the Milesians - so-called because they dwelt in the Ionian city of Asia Minor known as Miletus. Thales, Anaximenes, and Anaximander, in succession, these are universally regarded as the West’s first true philosophers because they asked the question: what is the nature of the world? And beginning with Thales, each of them responded to this perplexing dilemma by reducing the vast multiplicity of the world of infinite distinguishable thing to one basic element - something that in Greek might be called a physis.
Now, that word in itself implies for us a physical - and therefore strictly "scientific" theory. For if the universe is reduced ultimately to its physical manifestation and is discussed as such, then these early thinkers amount ultimately to materialists by default. And while it is true that each of them gave an ultimately "physical" answer to the question of what is the ultimate physis of all things - and all three were quite wrong, of course - when seen in this light, they do seem to occupy the position of the forerunners, at least, to what we would call "real" science. However, they did not test their hypotheses - how on earth could they have? They relied on pure reason. And since each one disagreed with his predecessor, it is obvious (at least to us) that pure reason cannot give a true answer to a question of physics.
But their intuitive reasoning was not so far off the mark, was it? If we ask a modern physicist the same question, "What is the universe made of," we might get a similar answer, such as "energy," might we not? And is this answer any more specific or any less puzzling than the answers given by the Milesians, even if today, our scientists assert that they can "prove or demonstrate" that such is the case?
However, Aristotle used a different term than physis, and in doing so, may have made all the difference. The Milesians, quotes the Macedonian genius, were all searching for the ultimate arche - that is, "principle," of the world. And a "principle" is not necessarily a physical substance at all. Is it not, rather, ultimately, first and foremost, a conceptual principle? And if it is, are the Milesians, then, not truly the first philosophers after all? For when one deals in the realm of pure concepts and abstractions, one is no longer limited to physics - one steps beyond that world to the realm of mind. And there, everything takes on a different, more subtle - and more confusing - character.
But of course, the fact remains that the Milesians themselves probably in no way made any such distinction. It would take a while for this distinction to become clear, and it would only reach its maturity in the fully developed metaphysical system of Plato, nearly 200 years later.
The fact remains, however, that this rough territory be charted out first, and the Milesians were the ones to do it. We are told that what answers they gave to their own questions were not nearly as important as the fact that they posed those questions themselves. And we are probably told correctly. At any rate, it seems unquestionable that these early "wise men" are the ones who historically kicked off the entire Western philosophico/scientific "project" with their puzzling inquiries.
Still, these questions implied some other, more puzzling questions as well, and I don’t think the Milesians managed to answer them quite as well, though heaven knows they tried. First of all, if everything is ultimately one physis (substance) or arche (concept), how the hell did everything get to be so many different things? I mean, if you think about it, if everything was ultimately one thing, wouldn’t it have a tendency to simply stay that way?
As I said, the Milesians did try to solve this, through the ideas of motion and later the more impressive reduction of quality to quantity - though we’ll get to that later. But, clever as they were, they couldn’t test their hypotheses, and so they were wrong.
Later Pre-Socratic philosophers came up with other solutions. We will read of the bold vision or logos of Heraclitus, the "weeping philosopher," who saw all harmony as the direct result of conflict itself. And we may find that he came closer to the truth than anyone around him. Empedocles thought that "love" and "hate" got things going and Anaxagoras even suggested it was "mind’ (nous). And the subtlest reasoner of all, the unbendable Parmenides, simply concluded that if everything was, then nothing could move. We were simply mistaken about what we thought we observed. (Now, that’s a true philosopher!)
Then we’ve got the nagging problem of what keeps the entire process of reality going once it starts out? Why doesn’t everything collapse back onto some primordial state of being? Well, this is where it really gets tricky. Because one by one, each of these philosophers (Parmenides excluded, naturally, since nothing really moves) had some sort of recourse to positing some sort of natural law or rule of behavior and regulation. And what a barrel of monkeys that opened! What the hell is a law, anyway? Who says things have to behave a certain way, and why does it work?
What exactly is the ontological status (what kind of being?) is a physical law or a law of nature? What does it imply?
Some philosophers and psychologists like to point out that humans receive their concepts of "law" from the existence of social conventions within a society. We know what "law" means in our country or town - if we break one, there will be consequences. Some thinkers have suggested that when we apply such a concept as "law" to nature itself, we are thinking unduly anthropomorphically.
This can easily be seen to be true in our abstract normative concepts, such as "justice." In a sense, one could argue that this word, as an abstraction, is simply a reflection of what we experience in our own communities, and that we unthinkingly project the concept onto reality in general. We tend to think that there is such a think as "natural justice", somehow, in nature itself, whereas it may only have a relative human meaning based upon our social structures.
That may as well be. But when we are speaking of physical laws, such as "the law of gravity" or "the laws of thermodynamics", we certainly seem to assume that such "laws" or principles of behavior exist in nature, whether we conceive of them or understand them or not. Just what do we mean when we use the term "physical law?"
This goes right into the heart of the philosophy of science itself. As we have seen, the early Greek speculators had not distinguished "science" in any specific sense from any other type of ratiocination in general, but it is clear that when the pre-Socratics, such as the Milesians, approach the concept of "law," they are coming closer and clearer to the concept of a general notion of "cause and effect" within a larger system of contained by some sort of principle of "unity." And it is, perhaps, this very principle of "unity" itself that gives the Milesians the proper title of the first scientists (or "proto-scientists") and the first philosophers of the Western world.
The concept of "unity" is a very powerful one indeed. We all know from experience that individual things are "unities" of separate and disparate things. Take a dog, for instance. We might say that he is made of four legs, a trunk, a head and a tail. We might go further and talk about fur, muscles, organs, nerves and brains. Today, of course, we can go even further and talk about individual cells, or even parts of cells that perform different functions - all the way down to atoms and sub-atomic particles.
But what justifies us in calling all these disparate parts a "unity?" Are we not just projecting our own conceptual outlook on all of these separate parts and arbitrarily calling it a "dog?" Well, if the dog starts barking, I think we have to conclude that there’s really something to this "unity principle" that stands up in the physical world!
So what happens if we take this same concept of "unity" and apply it to reality as a whole? Is that not just as valid as applying it to an individual thing within reality, such as a dog?
Well, that depends.
If we are talking about "the physical universe," that is, the observable part of reality that we can view - or at least have the theoretical potential to view, then if we use a term like "unity", what we mean is that all of "the physical universe" operates together as one inter-related system. How do we know this? Well, we could hypothesize such a notion, but then we would have to verify this hypothesis, somehow, through observation.
Well it just happens to be an accepted axiom of physical science, that the "physical universe" - that is all of nature - actually is a unified system in which everything is inter-related. And that’s why we can postulate laws, and using those laws, make predictions about the behavior of the physical world. This basic assumption is what makes "science" even possible.
But what about the more abstract concept of reality itself? Can we legitimately say that everything that is - no matter what it is - is itself a unity? Can we talk about a general "unity of being?"
See, this is why the Milesians and the other pre-Socratics can be said to be philosophers, and not merely scientists. Because when they brought up the questions of change within unity or the harmony of the unity of being, they elevated the status of these questions to a purely abstract level. As long as you remain on the level of nature - that is, the "physical universe" that can be (at least in theory) observed, then you are in the realm of science. Once you go beyond this concept and apply it to all "conceivable reality," then the only way you can (theoretically) prove it is through the use of pure reason.
And this is, apparently, what the pre-Socratics actually did. But were they justified in so doing?
Well, I suppose that depends upon your stance on the limits of human knowledge. If you are a Kantian, for example, you will argue that "unity" is a category of thought, a precondition for the way that we perceive things in nature - what Kant called "the phenomenal world." As long as the principle of "unity" is consistent with the world we perceive with our senses, it can be considered as a valid construct or element of that world.
As for the world beyond our sense-perception, however - the thing-in-itself stuff that Kant referred to as "the noumenal world," there is no way that we have access to that sort of knowledge. By its very definition, reality itself, or absolute, pure being - however you want to put it - is incapable of being observed, and is thus, ultimately unknowable. We can only speak of it metaphorically.
Now, not everyone agrees with Immanuel Kant, and these are very technical points that he makes. But one thing is for certain, and that is that the pre-Socratics never got down to asking these fundamental questions about epistemology, or the conditions and limits of human knowledge. They simply looked out at what they saw of the world, accepted it, and presumed that you could simply reason about it.
That doesn’t mean that they were all oblivious to the problems of human knowledge, however. Even with the bold postulations of the Milesians, there was at least an inherent understanding that the world isn’t exactly how it appears. Everything in the universe may ultimately be made of one single physis, but that’s certainly not the way it seems to the ordinary person’s perspective. Early philosophers like Heraclitus would have to go far past ordinary observation to reach the profound conclusions that could only be achieved through abstract reasoning. And when we get to Parmenides, he will insist that we cannot even begin to trust in what we see!
As far as the conclusions of the pre-Socratics go, I don’t think that we will find any of them that won’t be fraught with problems. But on the other hand, I think we will see that their arguments and solutions provided extraordinary insights that would not only lead for further and deeper philosophical analysis and speculation, but that in many cases, still hold fascinating implications for us even today.
Coming next: The Milesians!
- petey